Dipali Asked a Question
February 23, 2022 6:32 ampts 30 pts
Let f be a mapping from X = {1, 2, 3, ......., 50} to itself such that for m, n  X, m - n implies that f(m) - f(n). Then which of the following is true ? (A) There is m  X such that f(m) = m (B) For every m  X, we may have f(m) = m – 1 (C) For every m  X, we may have f(m) = m + 1 (D) For every even m  X, we must have f(m) = 1/2 m
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  • Rucha rajesh shingvekar thankyou
    Concept: If a mapping of a function is defined to itself, it means the range and domain of the function are the same. Calculation: In this problem nothing has been mentioned abo...
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