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September 23, 2020 4:51 pm 30 pts
Usually a pointwise convergence series does not imply it is uniformly convergent. can someone please tell me how this is holding without doing it by definition of uniform convergence.
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• Satpal singh
use dirichlet test take bn = 1/n un = (-1)^n
• Laxmi meena
see may be there has little mistake in question but no problem . as it is said that given series is convergent of real number . second if you can see <1/n> is monotonic and limit ...
Shruti
so in genral if a series is convergent over R then it need not imply that is uniformly convergent right?
• Shruti
is there no one who can answer my query?