Sriram Asked a Question
February 2, 2022 7:32 pmpts 30 pts
3. If lim f(x) = l and I # 0, then prove that lim x tends to a 1 by f(x) I equal to 1/l
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  • Navdeep goyal 1 thankyou
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    Sriram
    Sir, Can I do this sum in this way... because I have doubt in writting the part/step where I have mentioned the doubt in the picture.
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