Payal Asked a Question
July 25, 2021 6:38 ampts 30 pts
68. If F() is the Lapláce ransform of function f0, then Laplace transform of f)dt is (B)F)-0) (SF)-O) (D) FG)ds
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  • Alka gupta thankyou
    ans A...
    • cropped128463812208928592.jpg
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    Payal
    mam in answer key ans is B
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