Pradeep jogsan 1 Asked a Question
September 18, 2021 9:16 ampts 30 pts
ampe z1 A particle in a one-dimensional potential has the wave function vl) where a is a constant. It follows that for a positive constant V, the potential V(r) = (a) -V/ N (c) Vx (6) -V6(x) (d) V.Ml
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  • Dr suman 1
    i will upload its next part.
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  • Dr suman 1 thankyou
    first we have to check either the function is normalised or not. if it is normalised then first we have to normalised it. The given function is normalised.
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