profile-img
Chakravarthi G S posted an Question
June 06, 2020 • 01:17 am 30 points
  • IIT JAM
  • Mathematics (MA)

kindly prove this without using substitution method if it is not possible tell me the reason

3 Answer(s) Answer Now
  • 0 Likes
  • 7 Comments
  • 0 Shares
  • Anonymous User

    if you want then i will prove by using the Riemann Integration.

    eduncle-logo-app

    yes sir

    eduncle-logo-app

    other method

    eduncle-logo-app

    can we write this f(a-x)=f(a)-f(x)

    eduncle-logo-app

    No,@ Chakravarthi because we don't know about f ,is this satisfied the property or not.

  • Anonymous User

    if you want prove not using substitution you can go through the Riemann Integration .

whatsapp-btn

Do You Want Better RANK in Your Exam?

Start Your Preparations with Eduncle’s FREE Study Material

  • Updated Syllabus, Paper Pattern & Full Exam Details
  • Sample Theory of Most Important Topic
  • Model Test Paper with Detailed Solutions
  • Last 5 Years Question Papers & Answers