Anku posted an Question
October 13, 2020 • 03:35 am 30 points
  • IIT JAM
  • Mathematics (MA)

Does it mean that if fx(0,0) = infinity, then partial derivative exists.. ???

does it mean that if fx(0,0) = Infinity, then partial derivative

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    Deepak singh 1 best-answer

    if f is differentiable then fx and fy exist but converse need not true.. or we can say if fx and fy not exist then f is not differentiable.

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    Deepak singh 1 Best Answer

    if limit of fx is infinity implies partial derivative not exist.. (for existence , it should be finite ).

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    sir, if partial derivative will not exist then that function wont be differentiable..as per me it should not exist am I right..!!!?

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    sir pls tell..

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    yes , you are correct..

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    feel free to ask again..

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