Mohan Krishnan Asked a Question
April 10, 2020 6:42 pmpts 30 pts
  • 1 Answer(s)
  • 0 Likes
  • 1 Comments
  • Shares
  • Ujjawal vishal thankyou
    in 2nd step , we have multiplied and divided by √2... see √2 before the integral sign and 1/√2 inside with sin, cos... to obtain 3rd step, we know that Sin(π/4)=Cos(π/4)=1/√2... ...
    Show more
    Likes(0) Reply(2)
    Mohan Krishnan
    thank you vishal . please give more explain the third step. how sin(π/4+×) comes any formula using this step