Anku posted an Question
June 18, 2020 • 16:56 pm 30 points
  • IIT JAM
  • Mathematics (MA)

How to solve pls explain concept too

how to solve pls explain concept too. .. . . . . . . . . . . pls show steps .. . .

3 Answer(s) Answer Now
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    Dhairya sharma best-answer

    In any infinite set, you can form a bijection between natural numbers and an infinite subset of that set, therefore making it countable👍 meaning thereby is to say that option a is correct

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    it may help u

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    see this

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    yes mam

  • Pulkit khandelwal Best Answer

    a> We can always get a subset (of k elements) of any set(of n elements) with k take A=set of natural numbers and x=1 so wo get a bijective fuction f:A onto A-{1} i.e. f(x)=x+1. so b is incorrect. Infact if Ai represnt ith elemnt of A then we can find bijective function whuch map ith element of A to (i+1)th element of A. c> [0,1] is an infinite set we proof in option b that [0,1] is equivalent to(0,1] which is equivalent to (0,1) so (0,1) is equivalent to [0 1] option c is correct d>Z×Z is countable as finite product of countable set is countable. option d is false

  • Srinath

    Option a. In any infinite set, you can form a bijection between natural numbers and an infinite subset of that set, therefore making it countable

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    won't option c also be true pls explain

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    Yeah, it would also be true. I should have specified that goo.

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