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Nilanjan Bhowmick AIR 3, CSIR NET (Earth Science)
Piyush pachauri
Options C D are correct , Use Rolle's theorem
sir please can u once show how to apply mean value theorm for option c
Sorry ,My bad. Use Rolle's theorem
You can get it done using Rolle's as function is infinite diffrentiable f(0)=f(1) =0 so there exists c in (0,1) such f'(c) =0
and use Rolle's on all derivatives
sir below navdeep sir has explained we cant use rolles theorem he gave following explanation
f(0)=f(1)= 0 there exist c€(0,1) f'(c)=0 but it is not necessary f"(c)=0
sir can u please tell if above explanation is correct or not..
sir kindly reply..
I was checking Navdeep sir's comment , He has given you wrong example because his example does not satisfy the condition of f'(0)=0 so f'' was not zero at any point.
ok sir.. thank u sir for explanation..
is it clear or you have any doubt?
yes sir now its clear