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Sonu saini Best Answer
answer is A .....since every element is self inverse remaining only one element so this element must be of order 2(self inverse ) ....and if every element is of order 2 ....or if every element is self inverse then that group is always abelian .
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Anonymous User![best-answer]()
each gi is elements of order 2 for all I = 1 to n-1 so each element inverse itself . remaining gn is also inverse itself others wise order of G more then n . we know if every non identity element of G is of order 2 then G is an abelian so option A