Neha Hema raj Asked a Question
April 22, 2020 9:30 pmpts 30 pts
If we change the order of integration in 1J dx."f«y)dy then it is equal to I=dyJ, f(x.y) dx I-dy, («y)dy I=dyf(x. y) dx (A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
  • 1 Answer(s)
  • 0 Likes
  • 1 Comments
  • Shares
  • P Choursiya Best Answer
    see attachment
    • cropped1991127560064265096.jpg
    Likes(0) Reply(0)