IIT JAM
Neha Hema raj Asked a Question
April 22, 2020 9:30 pmpts 30 pts
  • IIT JAM
  • Mathematics (MA)

If we change the order of integration in 1j dx."f«y)dy then it is equal to i=dyj, f(x.y) dx i-dy, («y)dy i=dyf(x. y) dx (a) (b) (c) (d) none of these

If we change the order of integration in 1J dx."f«y)dy then it is equal to I=dyJ, f(x.y) dx I-dy, («y)dy I=dyf(x. y) dx (A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
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  • P Choursiya Best Answer
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