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In this why interval (0,Π/2) taken.. why not other interval taken..pls tell
in this why interval (0,Π/2) taken.. why not other interval taken..pls tell
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Deepak singh 1 Best Answer
see attached , it may clear your doubt
if any doubt then ask
sir isnt here f(N) subset of (3Π/2,Π)
pls tell
no ,
see graph ..range is (0,π/2)
sir since. range of tan^-1(x) is from -Π/2to Π/2 but in question it is (+)ve so we took interval (0,Π/2) had there been (-)ve then we would have taken (-Π/2 , 0 ) ..
am i right sir..?
yes..
see , we are putting n=1,2,3,4... in domain of tan^-1 and range of tan^-1 is (0,π/2)
natural no. is always +ve . So there will be no -ve
okk sir..thanks a lot sir ..