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July 21, 2020 12:14 pm 30 pts
is it necessary that if function f and g are bounded then function f/g is also bounded?
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no suppose f=X and g= x^2 in [-1,1]-{0} then both are bounded in [-1,1]-{0} but f/g is not in [-1,1]-{0}
• Deepak singh
no, if f and g are bounded then it's not necessary that f/g is bounded..
Deepak singh
take f(x) = 1 in (0,1) and g(x) = 1+x in (0,1) then f/g = 1/(1+x) is unbounded in (0,1)
• Arzoo
f(x)=1 when x€(0,1) & g(x)=x when x € (0,1) Then f/g would be unbounded for x€(0,1)