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Vijay Singh chauhan Asked a Question
February 18, 2021 5:25 pmpts 30 pts
please send the solution to the problem given in the attachment.
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  • Satpal singh thankyou
    you need to take common 2^(n+1) and 2^(n) from the respectively brackets
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  • Satpal singh thankyou
    see
    • cropped4281045897401154078.jpg
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    Vijay Singh chauhan
    Thank you Satpal sir for showing.
  • Piyush
    Any doubt then you can ask
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  • Piyush Best Answer
    If you let n tends to infinity this term goes to X. Take 2^(n+1)×2^n common from both numerator and denominator
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    Vijay Singh chauhan
    Thank you Piyush sir.