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Vijay Singh chauhan Asked a Question
March 31, 2021 7:14 pmpts 30 pts
please send the solution to the problem given in the attachment.
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  • Deepak singh 1 thankyou
    Not true , Refer attached counter example .
    • cropped4863549900075018638.jpg
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  • Satpal singh thankyou
    no it is not true . take f(x) =x, g(x)=1/x and b=0. limit of f(x) g(x) exist at 0
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