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Vijay posted an Question
October 08, 2020 • 15:50 pm 30 points
  • IIT JAM
  • Mathematics (MA)

Please solve for the prove and show me step by step procedure

please solve for the prove and show me step by step procedure

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    Vijay Singh chauhan

    thank you Srinath sir for your valuable effort, time, and energy.

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    Anytime. I'll help you with what I know.

  • Srinath Best Answer

    Consider, an element a in G. Since G is a group, the inverse of a is unique and it exists in G. Now, consider a`, the inverse of a, in G. Clearly, according to the map, a will be mapped to a` and a` will be mapped to a.... Since the 'a' we chose was arbitrary, this applies for every element in G. We are taking the pair, (a, a`) which is mapped to (a`,a), in a sense. In this manner, every pair ( the element, its inverse) will be mapped to ( the inverse, the element). Now the uniqueness of inverses, shows us that this map is one-one. You can check. If two elements are not equal in G, their inverses aren't equal either. To check onto, pick any element, in the codomain G. Now clearly it's inverse exists in the domain G. Therefore this function is clearly bijective.

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    great to have experts like you.

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    Observe that this group is an homomorphism iff it is abelian.

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