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Vijay posted an Question
December 24, 2020 • 23:02 pm 30 points
  • IIT JAM
  • Mathematics (MA)

Send the solution to the problem given in the attachment.

2 Answer(s) Answer Now
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  • Anonymous User Best Answer

    See this attachment for Complete solution

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    why the limit exists for a-1>0, and not for all real values of "a"?

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    because if you take the values of a less than 1 then a-1 becomes negative and it will go in denominator. because numerator is oscillating between -1 to +1 then overall limit will oscillating infinitely . hence it's limits fails to exist so it will not differentiable at that points

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    if you take a-1>0, doesn't the function still oscillate?

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    what's ur doubt plz tell me clearly

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