Samveel ansari Asked a Question
July 30, 2020 9:43 pmpts 30 pts
wavenumber is simply given by 1 by lambda (1/lambda) lambda=wavelength, then why here number is given by 2π/wavelength According to given problem = RZ2 [1 2 n = RZ2 1 1 n 1 1 RZ 23 (na 1 and 1 (n, The wave numbers of above radiation are 11 1 xRZ2 n or 27T K 2 2T K, and 1 1 K,-K, 27 2 RZ2 (n, n Let the wave number of the third emitted line will be K 27T K K, - K, or RZ11 1 n
  • 2 Answer(s)
  • 0 Likes
  • 5 Comments
  • Shares
  • Ravi prakash yadav Best Answer
    in Physics sometime angular wave number(2π/lambda) is used instead of spectroscopic wavenumber (1/lambda).
    • cropped4989134706026589688.jpg
    Likes(0) Reply(0)
  • Chandra dhawan thankyou
    read this....
    • cropped-964564319.jpg
    • cropped121613648.jpg
    Likes(2) Reply(1)
    Chandra dhawan
    read this
  • Vaishali sharma
    dear the which u underlined is formula.
    Likes(1) Reply(8)
    Vaishali sharma
    wave vector k is inversely prapotional to wave length.
  • Vaishali sharma
    see attached
    • cropped491679681072234215.jpg
    Likes(1) Reply(2)
    Vaishali sharma
    see attached
  • Chandra dhawan
    dear plz clearfiy your prob what do you want to ask?
    Likes(0) Reply(0)