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Samveel Ansari posted an Question
July 31, 2020 • 03:13 am
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30 points
30 points
- IIT JAM
- Physics (PH)
Wavenumber is simply given by 1 by lambda (1/lambda) lambda=wavelength, then why here number is given by 2π/wavelength according to given prob
wavenumber is simply given by 1 by lambda (1/lambda) lambda=wavelength, then why here number is given by 2π/wavelength According to given problem = RZ2 [1 2 n = RZ2 1 1 n 1 1 RZ 23 (na 1 and 1 (n, The wave numbers of above radiation are 11 1 xRZ2 n or 27T K 2 2T K, and 1 1 K,-K, 27 2 RZ2 (n, n Let the wave number of the third emitted line will be K 27T K K, - K, or RZ11 1 n
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Dhairya sharma
dear the which u underlined is formula.
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wave vector k is inversely prapotional to wave length.
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but this formula uses in oscillation and waves
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no is applicable everywhere .....in ed , in qm
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every wave have to satisfy it weather it is elastic , sound or em wave
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we can not limit this formula .
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I'm talking about the differences of the formulas which is in between this click and the above click I have uploaded
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this is the same i think both are the formula for wave no.
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in your pic v(bar) is wave no not frequency
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Chandra prakash
dear plz clearfiy your prob what do you want to ask?
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Ravi prakash yadav Best Answer
in Physics sometime angular wave number(2π/lambda) is used instead of spectroscopic wavenumber (1/lambda).