Why is this uncountable..can't we use fact finite product of countable sets is countable in this question.

take (π,1/π) belongs to R^2 and π×1/π = 1 which belongs to Z , thus it implies this set contains irrational no. also and irrational are uncountable , so given set is uncountable .

here we can not statblis one one correspondence to given set....so thats y it is uncountable set

see....