Anku Asked a Question
February 21, 2021 7:16 ampts 30 pts
why is this uncountable..can't we use fact finite product of countable sets is countable in this question.
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  • Deepak singh thankyou
    take (π,1/π) belongs to R^2 and π×1/π = 1 which belongs to Z , thus it implies this set contains irrational no. also and irrational are uncountable , so given set is uncountable .
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    Anku
    sir then it should also be uncountable as √8,√2 € R and their product is √(16)=4 € Q and since set of irrational numbers so uncountable ....but ans given is countable
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  • Alka gupta thankyou
    here we can not statblis one one correspondence to given set....so thats y it is uncountable set
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  • Alka gupta Best Answer
    see....
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